If the father has autosomal dominant disease, then what will be the probability of having an affected offspring irrespective of sex of the child, if the mother is unaffected?

90%

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10%

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50%

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100%

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Solution

The correct option is C 50%
In an autosomal dominant disorder, the mutated gene is a dominant gene located on one of the nonsex chromosomes (autosomes).
Only one mutated gene is necessary to be affected by this type of disorder. A person with an autosomal dominant disorder — in this case, the father — has a 50% chance of having an affected child with one mutated gene (dominant gene) and a 50% chance of having an unaffected child with two normal genes (recessive genes) irrespective of the sex of the child.

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Q. If the father has autosomal dominant disease (heterozygous), then what will be the probability of having an affected offspring irrespective of sex of the child, if the mother is unaffected?

Q. If the father has autosomal dominant disease (heterozygous) and the mother is unaffected, then what will be the probability of having an affected offspring irrespective of the sex of the child?
[1 mark]

If here we have two parents of a child father is of fair complexion and mother is of dark complexion then what sort of gene will be inherited to the offspring whether child will have fair or dark complexion if fair is considered as recessive trait and dark as dominant

Regarding the assertion and reason; choose the correct option.

Assertion [A]: A genetic disease that affects only one parent can have 50% chance of affecting the child.

Reason [R]: An autosomal dominant defective allele can cause a disease even in heterozygous condition.

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